ACVPM Food Protection Practice Exam

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which product category is not covered by USDA-FSIS oversight?
• What type of food irradiation is ideal for ground beef patties?
• Which act mandates labeling of allergens?
• Which HACCP step assesses each step of the process to identify potential food safety hazards and determine those that are reasonably likely to occur?
• Vibrio is often acquired from which food?
• Which component provides ongoing monitoring of controls?
• Rapid test and slaughter approach is a viable strategy for managing an AI H5 outbreak.
• A recall category defined by a reasonable probability that use or exposure to a violative product will cause serious adverse health consequences or death is called a
• Pigs who are sorted into a subject or suspect pen must be inspected by whom?
• What type of food irradiation is ideal for processing whole chickens and turkeys?
• For cell cultured meats, which agency would oversee final products including cultured fish cells?
• What function do drones (male) honeybees perform for the colony?
• What is the FSIS maximum allowed percent of Salmonella contamination in chicken samples?
• Under the Foreign Supplier Verification Program, it is possible for third parties to certify suppliers.
• Which regulation oversees any type of GMO that impacts the environment and requires federal preparation of Environmental Assessments (EA) or Environmental Impact Statements (EIS) in certain cases?
• A recall where eating the product may cause health problems or death due to hazards such as botulinum toxin or undeclared allergens is a
• PEDV survival is ingredient-specific.
• What practice helps keep pests out around the packing area?
• What is the term for animals condemned at ante-mortem?
• What is Codex Alimentarius?
• Grade A milk that consistently shows bacteria counts in excess of the legally acceptable maximum should be:
• What does 'Passed for cooking' indicate in meat inspection?
• Which processing method is similar to HTST but uses slightly different equipment and higher temperatures for a shorter time?
• HTST uses metal plates and hot water to raise milk temperatures to at least 161°F for not less than 15 seconds followed by rapid cooling.
• Nosema causative agent?
• Under NSIS, the establishment must identify animals or carcasses that have been sorted and removed for disposal before inspection. Which of the following is a valid method to do this?
• Which factor would cause the Standard Plate Count to increase in milk samples?
• Which bacterial pathogen is listed as carried by swine?
• (T/F) FSMA mandated inspection frequency in addition to introducing mandatory recall, enhanced product tracing, and expanded records access.
• Which of the following is NOT a clearly stated objective of Food Defense?
• What is the method used to test humans for Brucellosis?
• Scrombroid toxicity results from bacterial decarboxylation of histidine.
• Which statement best describes a Critical Control Point?
• How can you diagnose Varroa in a honeybee colony?
• What is the most common cause of bacterial foodborne illness in the United States?
• Listeriosis in pregnant women is often characterized by which symptom?
• How is a post-mortem FSIS inspection done?
• Which practice would not align with recommended guidelines for live animal markets?
• Beekeepers can treat Varroa with synthetic acaricides without involvement of a veterinarian.
• INFOSAN Alerts are part of international actions used to stop outbreaks. Which option represents INFOSAN Alerts?
• How do X-rays irradiate food?
• Which of the following are symptoms of Nosema infection?
• Which of the following is a common symptom of Cyclospora infection?
• Neurotoxic shellfish poisoning is caused by what organism?
• Which organism is listed third among the top four causes of death from foodborne illness in the United States?
• Under 9 CFR, livestock must have feed provided if held over how many hours?
• Which is an example of epidemiologic evidence in an outbreak investigation?
• Which of the following is NOT a common source of Trichinella in humans?
• Radiological hazards are a type of which hazard?
• FSIS requires that cell cultured meat establishments meet all FSIS regulatory requirements for obtaining a grant of inspection, including those for the development and implementation of Sanitation and Standard Operating Procedures and Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point (HACCP) Plans.
• Which disease is indicated by white, fluffy brood that becomes dry, white mummies?
• Which statement best describes shellfish as indicators of fecal contamination?
• In what year were fluoroquinolones withdrawn from poultry use?
• Which option best lists the five-step general approach to Preventative Controls (from FSMA)?
• Which pathogen was the most common cause of outbreaks from unpasteurized milk between 1990-2006?
• Prevention approaches for Cyclospora outbreaks include which two broad categories?
• Which item is required on pet food labeling?
• Which of the following is an extrinsic factor influencing microbial survival in foods?
• In scrombroid toxicity, which amino acid is decarboxylated by bacteria to form histamine?
• Before the chiller, carcasses are presented to inspectors after processing in what ways?
• Vibrio parahaemolyticus is sensitive to refrigeration, freezing, and heat.
• Which statement best describes the effect of homogenization on milk fat?
• Which outcome indicates a carcass is not suitable for human consumption?
• Which of the following is a typical indicator of rancidity in dairy fat products?
• Which statement best reflects the claim about synonyms for food irradiation?
• Which vascular change was reported in the pathology of the diseased fish?
• The modernization of swine slaughter inspection specifically targets _____________ slaughter establishments.
• Which statement NOT listed as a poultry-associated foodborne pathogen in the material?
• In one study, dogs fed raw diets were more likely to shed Salmonella than those not fed raw diets.
• Which seafood category is most implicated in foodborne illness and why?
• Which group is NOT listed among the major insider threats?
• Which law was signed in 2011 with the purpose of enabling the FDA to focus more on preventing food safety problems and changing laws for imported foods?
• In the 'US Suspect' designation, what happens to the head and carcass?
• Under the National Poultry Improvement Plan, breeder sources of laying hens should be clean free of Salmonella enteritidis.
• Which time frame is considered pre-harvest for meat?
• What prompted the establishment of NARMS in 1996?
• Is raw milk considered a probiotic?
• Bruising is most noticeable in which two livestock species?
• Ultra Pasteurized (UP) milk is heated to not less than 280°F for two seconds.
• How are anisakidae larvae killed?
• The veterinarian issuing the VFD is required to have a Veterinary Client Patient Relationship with the producer.
• Which FSMA provision addresses the safety of produce grown or harvested?
• Raw bovine colostrum is regulated as what?
• The New Poultry Inspection System (NPIS) is mandated by the USDA as of 2014.
• Which agency would oversee food products incorporating cultured fish and seafood cells in cell cultured meats, and conduct inspections and related activities?
• Florfenicol under VFD is approved for use in which animals?
• Which statement best describes the factors defining the source/quality for production water?
• Salmonella enteritidis is considered to have a silent spread in poultry houses.
• When you are comparing a genome of two different isolates by comparing a gene-by-gene (locus-by-locus) basis to find differences, this is known as ________________ analysis
• 1 in ____ Americans get sick each year from foodborne illness.
• Live animal markets disproportionately affect which populations?
• Which birds receive the Salmonella enteritidis vaccine that reduces fecal shedding by protecting ovaries and oviduct?
• Which option lists the three types of hazards considered in HACCP hazard analysis?
• Relaying in shellfish sanitation refers to which practice?
• What is the typical duration of infection Salmonella in people?
• Which of the following is a method to prevent biological hazards in foods?
• Which of the following is a Big 8 allergen?
• Each year, foodborne illness in the US costs consumers $6.9 (million/billion/trillion) dollars.
• How long do worker bees live?
• Ergotamine is classified as which type of toxin?
• X-ray irradiation can penetrate packaging materials and reach the product.
• What are the two testing criteria for production water under the Produce Safety Rule?
• When chlorine is used as a sanitizing agent for utensils, its bactericidal effect is reduced if:
• During which period are chickens 100 to 1,000 times more susceptible to Salmonella enteritidis?
• Which of the following is not an intermediate or end product of aerobic metabolism?
• Which statement is true about sampling in large swine establishments?
• How many types of hemaglutinin antibodies are there for influenza?
• Stunning of poultry prior to slaughter is required.
• A Standard Plate Count in milk quality refers to which of the following?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a consumer prevention strategy for Salmonella?
• Which statement about water activity aw is correct?
• The neurological signs of ciguatera may persist for how long?
• FDA has approved the sale and production of GMO salmon in the United States.
• Which of the following is exempt from the Foreign Supplier Verification Program (FSVP) rule?
• What category does an animal intended for slaughter belong to?
• Which agency oversees cell collection, cell banking, and cell culture for cell cultured meats?
• Under traditional swine inspection, what is the maximum number of FSIS food inspectors conducting line inspections?
• Which statement about the efficacy of E. coli O157 vaccines in cattle is true?
• How is Hepatitis A virus transmitted?
• Grayanotoxin poisoning is associated with which exposure?
• US Porcine epidemic diarrhea virus (PEDV) was 99.5% to a ________ variant.
• What is the typical reservoir for Salmonella enteritidis in laying hens?
• Which of the following is NOT a common source of Salmonella in people?
• Which statement best describes why large batches are a higher terrorism risk factor?
• True or False: Mouse fecal pellets have between 100,000-230,000 Salmonella enteritidis per pellet.
• Which organization regulates VFD drugs?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the life-threatening complications of Salmonellosis listed?
• Which component deals with rapid removal of adulterated or misbranded products from the market?
• Name an example of a radiological hazard.
• In traditional swine inspection, how many FSIS inspectors conduct off-line inspection tasks and what is the maximum number of FSIS food inspectors conducting line inspections?
• What tends to be the reservoir for Salmonella enteritidis for shelled eggs?
• Symptoms of Listeria monocytogenes infections generally include which set?
• Which of the following is NOT a pasteurization variant?
• Which seafood category is typically contaminated due to infected food handlers rather than environmental contamination?
• Butyric acid and other VFAs belong to which chemical category?
• FSIS sampling programs are performed for
• Which of the following is a preliminary task in HACCP plan development?
• STEC can persist in soil and sediment, making testing of the farm environment feasible after harvest. Where can STEC testing be feasibly conducted?
• Which crop is 100% dependent on bees for pollination at bloom time?
• With NPIS, continuous online bird by bird inspection is conducted by the FSIS ______.
• Electrical stunning configurations approved for livestock include which of the following?
• Which two pre-harvest remediation methods are used when shellfish waters are contaminated?
• Under the FDA Egg Rule, what is the minimum flock size above which egg testing is required?
• FSIS designates a poultry operation as Category 3 if establishments have exceeded the Salmonella or Campylobacter maximum allowable percent positive during any completed 52-week moving window over the last three months.
• Outbreaks of Cyclospora cayetanensis are commonly related to waterborne outbreaks and which other category?
• Does pasteurization destroy all nutrients and enzymes in milk?
• Hens can begin producing Salmonella enteritidis infected eggs within ______ days post infection.
• What is the purpose of the HACCP flow diagram?
• Paenibacillus larvae is best described as what type of organism?
• Which clinical sign may be observed in chickens infected with Salmonella enteritidis?
• Which statement about FDA regulation of GMO salmon is correct?
• Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning typically presents with self-limiting vomiting, diarrhea and cramping within which time frame after ingestion of the heat-stable toxin?
• Which word best describes the pathogens encountered in dairy-related outbreaks from 1993-2006?
• If there is no growth in food, there is no toxin and therefore no illness in which foodborne condition?
• Which statement describes post-mortem NSIS inspection?
• NAD stands for Nonambulatory Disabled.
• Codex Alimentarius is produced by which organizations?
• Which legislation was instrumental in reducing the amount of trichinellosis in humans?
• Which Vibrio cholerae serogroup consistently produces cholera toxin?
• FSMA requires food facilities to implement a written preventative control plan. True or False?
• What is the FSIS maximum allowed percent of Salmonella contamination in Turkey samples?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a common source of Listeria monocytogenes?
• _______________ are the only inspection personnel that can perform a disposition on a retained animal carcass excluding birds.
• If eggs are diverted to pasteurization for life of the flock, how often must egg testing continue?
• What is the FSIS maximum allowed percent of Salmonella contamination in chicken parts samples?
• Varroa mites vector which disease?
• Which two metrics are used to evaluate production water?
• Which of the following is a comprehensive prevention measure for Salmonella enteritidis in chickens?
• As part of NSIS, the new definition of Ready-to-cook pork products (RTC) is any slaughtered pork product sufficiently free from bile, hair, scurf, dirt, hooves, toe nails, claws, bruises, edema, scabs, skin lesions, icterus, foreign material, and odor which is suitable for cooking without the need of further processing.
• What is the requirement for distributors to notify the FDA concerning VFD drugs?
• Can the yolk and outer shell be infected with Salmonella enteritidis from infected chickens?
• FSIS will designate a poultry operation of raw chicken parts/not ready to eat comminuted poultry as category ____ if they have achieved 50 percent or less of the Salmonella or Campylobacter maximum allowable percent positive during all completed 52‐week moving windows over the last three months.
• Pet food/treats can be a source of Salmonella to humans. Which option reflects this risk?
• Which of the following is not listed as a Hepatitis A prevention measure?
• What are 4 post mortem conditions that would mark carcass for disposal?
• What is a pre-harvest food safety practice used to protect consumers from drug residues in animals?
• The value of salt as a meat curing agent is primarily demonstrated by which property?
• Which typing pattern is used in triaging PulseNet clusters?
• Which factor contributes to the attractiveness of bioterrorism in food supply chains?
• Which statement about critical limits is true?
• Which of the following is the tracheal mite affecting honeybees (Acarapis woodii)?
• Which statement about VFDs is true?
• Which of the following is an example of an accepted composting method for produce?
• What is the treatment for Cyclospora cayetanensis?
• What percentage of the US food supply is imported?
• Which of the following is a factor contributing to shellfish contamination with human fecal waste?
• What internal cooking temperature should chicken liver reach to avoid infection?
• According to 9 CFR guidelines, nonambulatory livestock may be stun or humanely euthanized in place.
• With the FSMA Produce Safety Rule, this regulation extends to hops, wine grapes, pulses, and almonds.
• Which of the following is a primary preventive measure for Hepatitis A in the general population?
• Which of the following statements about Varroa mites is true?
• The monitoring activity (as part of HACCP) should provide reliable and definitive information on whether the _______ is being met or not.
• Onset of gastrointestinal symptoms after exposure to ciguatera toxin?
• Which of the following is true about the seven HACCP principles?
• Which of the following is a human foodborne pathogen associated with red meat?
• Which of the following is NOT a recommended measure to reduce insider adulteration risk?
• Which step involves controlling the outbreak?
• Which process breaks fat globules into smaller particles and prevents cream from rising to the top?
• AGID testing is not recommended for which type of birds according to NPIP?
• Which recall classification is defined as a situation in which use of or exposure to a violative product is not likely to cause adverse health consequences?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the primary objectives of NARMS?
• Finfish and crustaceans contamination source is typically:
• Nosema ceranae is newer and has probably been around since around 1980. Which species is this?
• The current times/temperatures in the PMO are based on levels necessary to kill what organism?
• Which of the following is a chemical hazard?
• Under the Produce Safety Rule, agricultural water must be safe and of adequate sanitary quality for its intended use.
• Electron beam irradiation penetrates approximately how many inches into product packaging?
• Which of the following is a common source of Yersinia enterocolitica in people?
• Which substance is not approved in the US for Nosema treatment in honeybees?
• Which statement about USDA internal cooking temperatures of meat is incorrect?
• Which of the following is a foodborne pathogen commonly linked to deli meats and soft cheeses?
• Which statement best describes how growth phase affects irradiation susceptibility?
• Which statement about HACCP hazard analysis is true?
• Which Vibrio species is typically associated with seafood and gastroenteritis after eating raw or undercooked shellfish?
• As part of the NPIS, there are two FSIS inspectors assigned per slaughter line. What are their two jobs?
• Which statement is NOT a characteristic of a VFD drug?
• How does an electron beam irradiate food?
• Which animal is listed as a common source of Trichinella in humans?
• States can adopt PMO in part.
• In the early 1900s, raw milk caused what fraction of food and waterborne outbreaks?
• Humane handling falls under which CFR Part?
• FSIS does not require preapproval and verification of labeling for cell cultured meats.
• Raw milk outbreaks seem to disproportionately affect which age group?
• Which statement best describes VFD drugs?
• In turned composting, what is the minimum number of turns during the active phase before curing?
• Which of the following could be intentionally added chemicals that may be hazardous if improperly used during food production?
• Which definition best describes Food Safety/Food Hygiene?
• As part of NSIS, establishment personnel are required to sort and remove unfit animals before FSIS ante-mortem inspection.
• What is the time window during which American Foulbrood affects larvae?
• The FDA Egg Rule applies to shell eggs sold without processing.
• Which organism accounted for the largest proportion of raw milk outbreaks (2007-2012)?
• What VFD drug is currently approved to treat swine to reduce diarrhea associated with E. coli?
• Traceback evidence in an outbreak investigation can include which of the following?
• What is the age at which peak shedding occurs in laying hen flocks infected with Salmonella enteritidis?
• Pupal cappings in healthy brood are described as which of the following?
• Biosolids used on crops must meet which EPA regulation?
• In addition to animals, Salmonella Typhimurium can be found in the
• Which combination of symptoms is characteristic of scrombroid toxicity?
• Name at least 3 things you can do to reduce the chances of an insider intentional adulteration of a food product.
• Market withdrawal is used when a product has a minor violation not subject to FDA action; which example illustrates this?
• What is the source of ergotism (Claviceps purpurea)?
• Why is sampling performed in FSIS inspections?
• Within how many days must corrective actions be submitted in response to a Notice of Intended Enforcement?
• RB51 brucellosis in humans has historically been associated with which exposure?
• In poultry, if antimicrobial interventions are used, chilling must be done mainly by ________.
• What does the Pasteurized Milk Ordinance establish?
• Porcine stress syndrome results from what condition?
• Which statement correctly distinguishes foodborne illness from foodborne intoxication?
• Which of the following is a non-foodborne route of transmission for foodborne pathogens?
• Under the FSMA Intentional Adulteration Rule, what is required to maintain a food defense plan?
• HACCP is?
• Holding eggs on the farm at 45 F for more than 36 hours helps minimize growth of Salmonella enteritidis.
• When you are comparing a genome of two different isolates by small piece-by-small piece to find differences, this is known as _________ analysis.
• All FSIS inspected meat and poultry plants operate under HACCP.
• The FDA Egg Safety Rule was implemented in what year?
• Heat denatures most of the alkaloid toxin of ergotamine.
• Symptoms of listeriosis can take up to how many days to develop after exposure?
• Porcine epidemic diarrhea virus (PEDV) can live and be transmitted by feed.
• Which statement best describes a prerequisite program in HACCP?
• Salmonella Dublin is commonly sourced from which animal?
• Which gas is the only approved gas for stunning livestock?
• Which entity provides a national outbreak investigation network by connecting with state and local health departments, USDA, and FDA?
• An outbreak in 2008 linked to Mexican hot peppers (or tomatoes) was due to which organism?
• In addition to disease transmission, what is another problem caused by rodents in poultry houses?
• A recall in which eating the food will not cause adverse health consequences (e.g., minor container defect, lack of English labeling in a retail food) is called a
• Which two sources are used to produce gamma rays for food processing?
• Which statement best describes the Avilamycin example regarding expiration vs duration?
• Three indicator organisms recommended for swine slaughter sampling?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a type of microorganism that can contaminate dairy products?
• Under the Accredited Third Party Certification rule, certifications will be used for which purposes?
• Which of the following is NOT a synthetic acaricide used for Varroa control?
• Which regulatory body handles New Animal Drug Applications (NADA) and New Drug Applications (NDA)?
• Regulations regarding hives positive for American Foulbrood vary by state, but in general hives are destroyed by fire. This statement is:
• FDA treats foods derived from GMOs like those from conventionally bred plants and classifies them as generally recognized as safe.
• Which of the following is correct regarding vaccines to prevent Salmonella enteritidis in poultry?
• Which HACCP principle's purpose is to prevent foods which may be hazardous from reaching consumers due to deviations from established critical limits?
• Which organization expands and maintains access to foreign markets for US agricultural products by removing trade barriers and enforcing rights under existing trade agreements?
• The phosphatase inactivation curve is used to determine if pasteurization is adequate; what indicates a good result?
• Campylobacter rate in chicken parts as reported is:
• In 2007, Cyclospora outbreaks due to fruit juice occurred in which country?
• The NPIS final rule includes a provision that prescribes maximum line speed rates under the NPIS to emphasize establishments' existing legal obligation to comply with OSHA laws.
• The description 'organics, metals, mycotoxins/phycotoxins/phytotoxins, food additives, nutrients, toxicants from cooking, and radionucleotides too' corresponds to which hazard category?
• What is the typical duration of Campylobacter infection in people?
• Approximately how many Americans get sick from foodborne illness each year?
• What are the 3 categories under the Salmonella Verification Testing Program?
• Which HACCP principle will include a summary of your hazard analysis, your written HACCP plan, support documentation, and records generated during plant operation?
• A VFD must include the approximate number of animals, but not the amount of feed to be fed. True or False?
• PulseNet searches for similar patterns in outbreaks over which time frame?
• FSMA introduced which of the following enforcement tools?
• Which statement about botulism is correct?
• The New Swine Slaughter Inspection System NSIS is a mandatory part of the Modernization for Swine Slaughter final rule.
• Hepatitis A virus causes about how many deaths per year in the United States?
• In HACCP terminology, a hazard refers to?
• PulseNet creates DNA fingerprints of bacteria isolated from ill persons using pulsed-field gel electrophoresis (PFGE).
• What does 9 CFR Part 313 address?
• Hepatitis A can cause fulminant hepatitis and relapsing hepatitis.
• Why is prevention particularly important for shellfish and fresh produce?
• Which FSMA provision focuses on preventing adulteration of food during operations?
• About how many Americans get sick due to foodborne disease each year?
• Which microorganism is most frequently associated with human foodborne illness and can grow in salt concentrations as high as 15%?
• Studies worldwide have found E. coli O157:H7 shedding by grass-fed cattle relative to grain-fed cattle to be generally:
• Which of the following is NOT a required element of a recall plan?
• Which crop is noted as having GMO prevalence in Hawaii, such as a large share of papaya?
• Which statement about GMO labeling outside the United States is true?
• More birds around cattle farms have been shown to have an increased prevalence of E. coli O157.
• Name at least 3 things a food facility can do to protect against an exterior attack.
• What temperature is required for rapid inactivation of Hepatitis A virus?
• Chickens infected with Salmonella enteritidis at 1 day old will have persistent intestinal colonization, and by 24 weeks, about 50% will shed Salmonella enteritidis in their feces.
• FSMA was signed into law in which year?
• Which of the following best describes a physical hazard?
• Which of the following is NOT a recognized route by which microorganisms can contaminate milk?
• Which organization is primarily responsible for ensuring the safety and proper labeling of meat, poultry, and processed eggs?
• The correct disposition of a bovine tuberculosis reactor carcass without visible lesions of tuberculosis is to:
• Which of the following is NOT one of the three elements of establishing corrective actions in HACCP?
• Colony Collapse Disorder is multi-factorial and in part due to what two things?
• Which combination accurately reflects the reported prevalences?
• Which toxin is responsible for ciguatera poisoning?
• Disguising a contaminant by strong sensory properties affects vulnerability in what way?
• Which of the following is NOT a type of Codex committee?
• Which form of microorganism is generally the hardest to kill?
• Which of the following is NOT a stated reason to handle livestock humanely?
• To guard against exterior attacks, which practice should a facility consistently perform?
• How many Salmonella enteritidis cells are required to infect a chick at one day old?
• Transportation of chickens and poultry can lead to increased fecal excretion of which two pathogens, creating aerosol hazards for poultry workers?
• Foodborne staphylococcal illness results from ingestion of preformed:
• Which of the following is NOT an intrinsic factor affecting microbial survival in foods?
• In regards to foodborne illness, maintaining a healthy, pathogen-free animal on the farm is which type of prevention, while cooking, freezing, pasteurization, etc., is which type?
• Which foulbrood has the shorter susceptible larval window?
• Which recall category is used when there is a health hazard with a remote probability of adverse health consequences from eating the food?
• When generating hypothesis, what information do you want to collect (3)?
• What is the only effective control for viral hemorrhagic septicemia?
• Which statement best describes the clinical symptoms of norovirus infection?
• In a vulnerability assessment, which of the following is considered?
• The CDC's role in helping stop outbreaks frequently involves communications. Which of the following is correct?
• Why was a federal law enacted in 1975 prohibiting the sale of turtles under 4 inches?
• What is the name of the alert issued when a medical device may present an unreasonable risk of substantial harm, and in some cases may be considered a recall?
• Which species have the sampling minimum of one per 3,000 or weekly (smaller facilities)?
• Which sequence describes the recommended hive inspection method?
• Which Salmonella serotype is found exclusively in humans?
• The microorganism most resistant to ionizing radiation is:
• Which of the following organisms was NOT among the top three causes of raw milk outbreaks (2007-2012)?
• Which of the following is NOT a synthetic acaricide used for Varroa control?
• Which statement about PMO adoption by states is true?
• Which statement accurately reflects 9 CFR requirements for stunning?
• ___________ are any biological, chemical (including radiological), or physical agent that has the potential to cause illness or injury
• Adult laying hens typically develop clinical disease such as severe diarrhea with Salmonella enteritidis infection.
• The mission of the ______ is to ensure the nation's commercial supply of meat, poultry, and processed egg products is safe, wholesome, and correctly labelled and packaged.
• External interest is a factor considered when triaging PulseNet clusters.
• Swine slaughter facilities must have an effective HACCP system.
• Histamine-related illness from improperly stored fish is referred to as?
• Which statement about NPIS is accurate?
• Abnormal animals during ante-mortem inspection are ______.
• What is the term for actions taken to return a process to control and to handle products affected by a deviation at a CCP?
• Which statement best describes the public health relevance of fallout radiation through food consumption?
• Which statement about CCP location is correct?
• Which country requires stunning prior to slaughter for meat imported from the United States?
• Salmonella enteritidis vaccination is currently mandated under the FDA Egg Rule.
• Which statement about required contents by law for a Food Safety Plan is accurate?
• Which agencies work together to investigate food safety issues and provide a framework for shared oversight at harvest for cell cultured meats?
• Which Salmonella serotype is most commonly associated with shell eggs?
• Which recall classification is defined as a situation in which use of or exposure to a violative product is not likely to cause adverse health consequences?
• Which food is a common source of Salmonella illness?
• Electronic cell counters are used on goat milk.
• Participation in NPIP is voluntary; participants must agree to meet standards if they choose to participate.
• Category 2 designation includes what condition about the 52-week periods and the last three months?
• In what year was Codex Alimentarius established?
• What are the two types of 'terrorists' to consider in vulnerability assessments?
• Which of the following is a physical hazard?
• Prior notice is required for importation of a food article before its arrival into the United States. True or false?
• Why are pork products less suitable for long-term freezing?
• _______ is those activities, other than monitoring, that determine the validity of the HACCP plan and that the system is operating according to the plan.
• Salmonella enteritidis can be passed from hens to chicks via eggs.
• Since the 2008 proclamation and 2012 finalization, cephalosporin resistance has generally:
• Which of the following is not a result of exsanguination?
• Raw dairy products account for approximately what proportion of dairy outbreaks?
• Which agency regulates pet food, treats, and supplements?
• Ultraviolet light used in food processing is most effective against which type of contamination?
• In the United States, approximately what percentage of people drink raw dairy products?
• Which test is used to determine if pasteurization is adequate by assessing enzyme activity?
• Salmonella Javiana is commonly sourced from which animals?
• States regulate all milk products produced and sold within state lines but sales over state lines are under federal oversight.
• How do shellfish fit into sanitation programs?
• Who issues the Veterinary Feed Directive?
• Which of the following is NOT an objective of HACCP?
• How many diseases/pests are considered by the OIE for honeybees that can be introduced through international commerce?
• Nosema infection is associated with winter mortality in which climate?
• Which kind of milk is covered in the PMO?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the three main impact points for production water risk?
• What is the key to controlling foodborne risks for shellfish and fresh produce?
• Which option is NOT listed as a form of food irradiation in the material?
• Vibrio vulnificus septicemia is most likely to occur in which population?
• What term describes an act or condition that results in severe harm to animals, such as allowing stunned animals to regain consciousness?
• Which of the following is NOT part of the Big 8 allergens?
• What is the difference between a VFD expiration date and duration of use?
• An estimated percentage of maternal Listeria infections that result in abortions, stillbirths, or fatal neonatal diseases is:
• Cyclospora cayetanensis causes what disease in humans?
• Fumagilin B is approved in the United States for Nosema treatment in honeybees.
• Which statement best describes the prevalence data for Campylobacter in poultry and swine?
• What class of antibiotic is specifically screened for in milk using FDA/NCIMS-approved tests?
• Which bedding for cattle was linked to a higher occurrence of coliform mastitis?
• Which fish species are commonly implicated in histamine (scombroid) poisoning?
• Dinophysis produces which toxin?
• Which hepatitis viruses can be transmitted by the fecal-oral route?
• Which two seafood products are commonly contaminated with Pseudo-nitzschia?
• What is the new sampling requirement for very low volume swine slaughter establishments?
• Under FSMA preventive controls requirements, food facilities are required to have a ______.
• Under FSMA, the FDA can suspend a food facility's registration if they determine what condition?
• A critical limit distinguishes between safe and unsafe operating conditions at a CCP.
• What is FSIS inspector Generated sampling used for?
• Salmonella is which type of bacteria?
• What are four common clinical signs of human infection with Salmonella enteritidis?
• Which of the following is a common symptom of Hepatitis A?
• When CDC triages PulseNet clusters, which of the following factors is considered?
• What threshold defines Category 3 in the Salmonella Verification Testing Program?
• All FSIS inspected meat and poultry plants operate under what type of plan?
• Foodborne illness is mostly just a stomach ache.
• Which statement best describes the Codex's involvement in protecting health and fair trade and coordinating standards?
• Which FSMA provision requires verification of foreign supplier compliance?
• What is the best disinfectant for Hepatitis A virus?
• What is a significant change to product recalls under FSMA?
• Which statement about Scombroid (scrombrotoxin) poisoning is incorrect?
• Which of the following are recommended methods for preventing Cyclospora cayetanensis outbreaks?
• BMRT stands for Brucellosis Milk Ring Test.
• Which major biosecurity point is one of the four to protect birds from avian influenza?
• What are the 3 outcomes of an FSIS ante-mortem inspection?
• Which condition reduces chlorine's bactericidal effect when sanitizing utensils?
• In milk quality testing, which property describes the thickness or flow characteristics of milk?
• How many types of neuraminidase antibodies are there for influenza?
• Which of the following are CDC outbreak response activities?
• Lettuce has been known to harbor E. coli O157.
• Which practice is essential as part of biosecurity to protect birds from avian influenza?
• Which HACCP principle involves confirming that the HACCP system is functioning effectively?
• What enzyme is used to test if pasteurizing worked?
• Which statement is included in the probiotic definition?
• What is the most implicated route of transmission for Hepatitis E virus?
• Which statement is NOT true about NPIP-approved tests for Avian Influenza?
• Which organization connects US agriculture internationally to promote global food security and enhance US import and export opportunities?
• Cross-contamination in the kitchen can be avoided by which practice?
• Clostridium botulinum type E has been demonstrated to have a particularly close association with which food category?
• The 'Person, Place, Time' triage factor includes which elements?
• Which crop has approximately 88% GMO share in the United States?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the five regulatory actions used to stop foodborne outbreaks?
• Which agency is primarily responsible for risk management and regulation in food safety outbreaks?
• How long must a veterinarian keep copies of all VFD orders on file?
• How many Salmonella enteritidis cells are required to infect a chick at 3 weeks?
• Preventative controls with HACCP are primarily concerned with controlling the ______.
• Which type of inspection is performed on the head, thoracic and abdominal organs, and the eviscerated carcass after the hide removal?
• A Critical Control Point is defined as
• E. coli O157:H7 illness is most often linked to which category?
• When potable water is discharged into any reservoir, air gaps are essential to:
• Which post-harvest processing technique uses heat to reduce microbial load?
• Which antibiotics can be used to treat American Foulbrood?
• Which organism is listed as the top contributor to death from foodborne illness in the United States?
• Which toxin is associated with Amnesic Shellfish Poisoning?
• In FSIS ante-mortem inspections, breeding animals, milking animals, and egg laying poultry are categorized as which type of livestock and poultry?
• Which of the following is NOT a component of the FSMA Food Safety Plan?
• The phosphatase inactivation curve measures the activity of which enzyme in milk?
• What is an advantage of using aerobic plate counts for routine pathogen sampling in a slaughter facility?
• According to FSMA, how often are 'high risk' facilities inspected?
• Which of the following is a common cause of Clostridium perfringens food poisoning?
• In recall terminology, which statement is true for Class II recalls?
• About how many people die of foodborne illness in the United States each year?
• Shellfish tend to be contaminated with human viruses from what source?
• Who makes the final disposition call for pigs in a suspect pen?
• Which statement about the Big 8 allergens is correct?
• Which of the following are examples of physical hazards?
• Which is a mode of Salmonella transmission to humans?
• When was the Food Safety Modernization Act (FSMA) passed?
• What is the incubation period for Hepatitis A virus?
• Which Salmonella serotype has a broad host range and is common?
• In FSIS ante-mortem inspections, animals grown for slaughter are categorized as which type of livestock and poultry?
• PulseNet shares what type of data?
• US Congress appropriates funds from general revenues to pay for inspection for the 8 hours of each production shift during 5 consecutive days, after that, the establishment is charged.
• PFGE is still being used for subtyping most pathogens in surveillance except?
• How is Varroa infestation most commonly diagnosed in a colony?
• Onset of neurological signs after exposure to ciguatera toxin?
• What is the primary mechanism by which irradiation kills microorganisms?
• Which statement is most accurate about norovirus infections?
• What is a VFD drug?
• GM salmon are bigger and grow faster due to genes from which species?
• Unfertilized eggs in bees develop into?
• Dried milk products can be classified as which of the following under PMO?
• If a VFD expiration date is not specified on the product label, the longest it may be fed is?
• Which two hazards are commonly controlled by cooking and hot holding in chicken?
• What is the definitive host for Anisakidae?
• Nitrite in bacon is currently a public health concern because which statement is true?
• Which fish is associated with digestive issues when eaten in large amounts?
• An additional biosecurity measure in poultry houses is to not allow employees to do what?
• Which of the following is among the six recommendations to reduce outbreaks at live animal markets?
• Which of the following is a human foodborne pathogen of processed meats?
• Vaccination of birds in event of AI outbreak is expected to do which of the following?
• Hemolytic uremic syndrome and Guillain-Barre syndrome can come from drinking raw milk.
• In disease outbreak investigations, which regulatory agencies are responsible?
• Which of the following correctly lists the three categories of animals that would be condemned at ante-mortem inspection?
• What is the standard percentage for the Salmonella verification threshold?
• Which two problems are caused by the mycotoxin ergotamine?
• According to the 9 CFR, are rabbits treated as poultry?
• Which FSMA rule establishes a voluntary program for accrediting third-party auditors to conduct food safety audits and certify foreign facilities?
• In HACCP, _____________ ________________ are designed to provide basic environmental or operating conditions necessary for the production of safe, wholesome food.
• Which of the following is used as a fecal indicator in dairy product testing?
• A vaccine exists for Hepatitis A virus.
• Certifications under the Accredited Third Party Certification rule are used by importers to participate in which program?
• Humans can get RB51 brucellosis from drinking raw milk.
• Which entity provides a national outbreak response team that works with state and local health departments, USDA, and FDA?
• In dairy production, which statement correctly describes pre-harvest and post-harvest stages?
• Which method uses gamma rays produced by radioactive isotopes such as cobalt-60 or cesium-137?
• Salmonella Typhi is primarily associated with which source?
• Norovirus accounts for approximately what percent of pasteurized milk outbreaks?
• At live animal markets in the US, which statement about custom exempt status is true?
• What defines an outbreak?
• CaliciNet is the national database that contains what type of data?
• In the CDC's public health role, which of the following reflects its responsibilities?
• The 1975 turtle sale law prohibits the sale of turtles smaller than what size?
• Pet foods are treated like human foods in that they are pure and wholesome, safe to eat, produced under sanitary conditions, contain no harmful substances, and are truthfully labeled.
• Which is a common CCP location when dealing with microbial hazards in foods requiring heat treatment?
• Which of the following is included in the Egg Safety Rule's preventative measures in poultry houses?
• Which of the following describes three ways Salmonella enteritidis (group D) can be spread within a laying hen flock?
• Which Vibrio species is the most virulent?
• Under FSMA, a Food Safety Plan must include hazard analysis, preventative controls, and which of the following?
• Tilmicosin is approved under VFD to treat which animals?
• Human food by-products are not subject to the animal food rule under FSMA (except for holding and distribution) if what two things apply?
• Which of the following is listed as a benefit of eating fish?
• Broadly speaking, which antimicrobials were the target of the Veterinary Feed Directive Final Rule?
• This is the most heat resistant pathogen recognized in milk.
• Which organism ranked third among the top three organisms causing raw milk outbreaks (2007-2012)?
• FSIS designates a poultry operation of raw chicken parts not ready to eat comminuted poultry as Category 2 if the establishments meet the Salmonella or Campylobacter maximum allowable percent positive for all completed 52-week moving windows but have results greater than 50 percent of the maximum allowable percent positive during any completed 52-week moving window over the last three months.
• What does VFD stand for?
• Which birds are AI clean or H5/H7 AI clean as part of NPIP?
• Which of the following is NOT a reported way avian influenza is spread?
• If a facility does not notify FSIS of desire to switch by the specified dates, it was assumed they are choosing to remain on the traditional inspection and will be evaluated as such.
• Which agency's inspectors are assigned to every federally-inspected processing/slaughter facility?
• What are results of FSIS directed sampling programs used for?
• Approximately what percentage of pig farms in the United States have tested positive for Salmonella enteritidis?
• Which of the following is NOT a recognized source of Vibrio cholerae?
• Which of the following is a genus of cyanobacteria?
• SalCURB treatment is described as preventing growth of which organism?
• When you are comparing a genome of two different isolates by using a high quality sequence or genome as a reference to identify differences, this is known as _____________ analysis
• Salmonellosis can cause acute gastroenteritis in people.
• Which radiation is used to preserve food by ionizing energy?
• Which of the following is a way FSMA enhanced partnerships with the FDA?
• What percentage of food allergic reactions are caused by the major eight food allergens (Milk, Eggs, Peanuts, Tree Nuts, Fish, Crustaceans, Wheat, and Soy)?
• Improperly canned foods are commonly associated with growth of which organism?
• Which term describes the system used to identify hazards and establish control points to ensure food safety?
• FSIS labeling for cell cultured meats requires preapproval and verification.
• Which statement best defines Food Safety?
• What is an example of laboratory evidence in an outbreak investigation?
• PulseNet is?
• Which of the following is an example of a radiological hazard?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the major eight food allergens?
• The feed manufacturer may not substitute a generic VFD drug in a combination VFD feed if the generic VFD drug is not part of an approved combination VFD drug.
• Which statement describes a sign associated with Salmonella enteritidis clinical disease in chickens?
• Which of the following crops is among those with the highest GMO share (roughly 88-95%) in the United States?
• A Notice of Suspension means FSIS may suspend inspector assignments at an establishment without prior notification.
• Which of the following lists all three post-mortem inspection outcomes?
• Which pathogen is commonly linked to poultry?
• Which agency would conduct inspections in all establishments that handle cultured livestock and poultry cells to ensure products are safe, wholesome, and properly labeled?
• Florfenicol is a VFD drug approved for treatment of which animals?
• Irradiation can directly impair critical cell functions or components of DNA.
• Laying hens infected with Salmonella enteritidis usually have significant disease including watery stool and decreased appetite.
• E. coli O157 illness is most often linked to which product category?
• In laying hens, what is the typical outcome of Salmonella enteritidis infection?
• True or False: Raw bovine colostrum has been associated with foodborne disease outbreaks.
• Salmonella Newport is commonly associated with which animals?
• Which of the following is an example of a pre-harvest food safety practice?
• NPIS offline verification inspection activities are conducted by FSIS ______.
• Pullorum-Typhoid disease historically caused approximately what mortality rate in poultry?
• Which statement best defines Food Defense?
• (Chemical/Biological/Physical) hazards typically result in injuries such as broken teeth, lacerations of the mouth, or choking
• Cyclospora cayetanensis oocysts are detected in which specimen?
• Eggs can be a source of which bacteria?
• Hepatitis A virus has been implicated in outbreaks of which type of food?
• Which ingredient is explicitly cited as being imported from China and possibly linked to PEDV introduction into the US?
• Which statement about NPIS is NOT true?
• Which signs were observed in juvenile Almaco Jack during the outbreak?
• Which classes of recalls typically have press releases?
• Norovirus outbreaks linked to produce typically originate at the farm level.
• Which of the following is a potential drawback of GMOs?
• Probiotic products must be identified to what taxonomic level?
• After the initial 24-hour feed allowance, feed must be provided every how many hours thereafter?
• What percentage of raw milk outbreaks were caused by Shiga toxin producing E. coli during 2007-2012?
• A friend who dined at a seafood restaurant 3 hours ago calls to describe experiencing tingling and numbness of lips, tongue and fingertips. These symptoms suggest an etiologic agent of:
• Which factor is NOT part of the RTC definition?
• Classic bell-shaped epidemic curves lasting weeks to months are typically associated with which type of product/outbreak?
• What is a written record that documents noncompliance with FSIS regulations and requires corrective actions and preventive measures?
• Which of the following foods has been rarely linked to foodborne outbreaks?
• Which clinical finding is associated with septicemia due to Salmonella enteritidis in chickens?
• How is Hepatitis A diagnosed?
• Under the Produce Safety Rule, if production water is supplied by a public water system, what testing is required?
• Salmonella Typhi is primarily sourced from which?
• Which statement about RTC definitions is NOT correct?
• Which life stage is affected by Nosema?
• Which statement about dairy outbreaks is true?
• Which of the following is a stated purpose of NPIP's national certification program?
• Postharvest water uses must have no detectable generic E. coli per 100 mL for which usage?
• Which item is exempt from FSVP because it is already subject to USDA regulation at the time of import?
• Which agency oversees mostly plant GMOs but also animal drugs, and conducts consultations, oversees New Animal Drug Applications (NADA) and New Drug Applications (NDA), as well as regulation of biological products?
• Which of the following is a common source of Clostridium botulinum in humans?
• Viral hemorrhagic septicemia affects both freshwater and marine fish.
• Which of the following is one of the seven HACCP principles?
• During HTST pasteurization of milk, which condition is correct according to PMO regulations?
• A 'qualified individual' for FSVP tasks must have what qualifications?
• Which statement accurately describes labeling requirements for GMOs in the United States?
• Humane handling laws and regulations apply to which of the following?
• T/F: The mission of the USDA FSIS includes verifying humane treatment of livestock and fair treatment of poultry.
• Positive predictive value is defined as the proportion of true positives among those who test positive. Which formula correctly expresses PPV?
• 84% of labeled 'white tuna' in a US study were actually which fish?
• FSIS uses what time frame to evaluate percent positive for Salmonella or Campylobacter in poultry operations?
• A custom exempt meat processor is defined as a processor that does not require continuous inspection because they only process meat for the owner; the meat cannot be sold and can only be consumed by the owner, the owner's immediate family, or non-paying guests. Which of the following best describes this status?
• What are the clinical signs of ciguatera toxin in people?
• Which pathogen accounts for the greatest percentage of foodborne illness in the United States?
• According to the FDA Compliance Policy Guide 555.425 what is the range of length (in mm) that is considered a hazard for the general public?
• Which statement best describes epidemiologic evidence in an outbreak investigation?
• Which statement accurately describes the fifth step in the FSMA Preventative Controls approach?
• Which crop is NOT listed among crops with high GMO shares (88-95%) in the United States?
• In the positive predictive value calculation, what does A represent?
• Fertilized eggs in honey bees will develop into which caste(s)?
• Which regulatory action is designed to coordinate international response to food safety events?
• What are clinical signs of Salmonella enteritidis infection in humans?
• Which factor does not affect the diffusion rate of curing ingredients into meat products?
• Which statement about FSIS regulated products is true?
• Which of the following is the etiologic agent associated with a seafood poisoning that presents with tingling sensations?
• Which bias is introduced when the comparison group provides a poor estimate of exposure frequency in a case-control study or disease frequency in a cohort study?
• Tropilaelaps mite is associated with which region?
• Which organism requires the highest dose of radiation to kill, and what is that dose (approximately)?
• Which of the following is a Grade A dairy product?
• The maximum and/or minimum value to which a parameter must be controlled at a CCP is defined as the __________.
• Scrombroid toxicity is caused by histamine due to what condition in fish like tuna and mackerel?
• The statement 'Human waste may be used on produce crops only if it meets EPA biosolids regulation (40 CFR part 503)' is:
• Under NPIS, unacceptable carcasses are removed where?
• Which recall class covers situations such as a minor container defect or lack of English labeling that are unlikely to cause health consequences?
• Which three portions of every pig must be inspected in both traditional and NSIS?
• Which botulinum type is associated with growth and toxin formation at lower temperatures?
• Hepatitis A virus is infectious at which dose?
• Which organism is specifically identified as associated with raw milk outbreaks during 1993-2006 among the most common pathogens?
• In what year was the HACCP Systems Final Rule for Poultry Pathogen Reduction issued?
• Vaccination for AI H5 is not a preferred option of control because of trade issues.
• Which indicator is most indicative of anaerobic spoilage in meat?
• What is the typical onset of clinical signs in someone infected with Salmonella?
• Which type of bias occurs when the method of data collection leads to systematic differences between groups?
• What is the typical onset of clinical symptoms in someone infected with Campylobacter?
• Ciguatera-contaminated fish are typically found in which regions?
• Which neurological symptoms may occur with Listeria monocytogenes infection?
• The occurrence of coliform organisms in pasteurized milk indicates which of the following?
• Which agency has primary oversight for cell cultured meat products?
• Which of the following is a common source of Toxoplasma gondii?
• (T/F) With FSMA, FDA can rely on third parties to certify foreign food facilities meet US requirements.
• Codex Alimentarius is based in what principle?
• Salmonella Poona has common sources including which of the following?
• Composting for use on produce must be a ________ process.
• What defines a Veterinary Feed Directive (VFD) as described in the materials?
• Which of the following is not typically considered a critical limit parameter?
• Which of the following are the three functions of Codex Alimentarius?
• Which operation would be Category 1 under the specified criteria?
• Which organism is associated with Amnesic Shellfish Poisoning in humans?
• Who conducts the hazard analysis for slaughter facilities under HACCP?
• The Salmonella cholerasuis vaccine used in swine is best described as which of the following?
• Which component ensures the FSMA plan remains effective and accurate over time?
• Which three genera are most frequently documented as causative agents of human bacterial origin foodborne illness in the US?
• Not a function of the VFD?
• European Foulbrood has a longer larval susceptible window than American Foulbrood.
• Which test is used to determine Brucellosis contamination in milk?
• The NSIS shifts agency resources to conduct more offline inspection activities that are more effective in ensuring food safety.
• As part of NPIS, young chicken establishments notify FSIS before slaughter of a new flock to allow FSIS inspection for ?
• (T/F) Gamma rays can be used to irradiate food.
• What created internationally accepted standards for food production and safety?
• Less than what percentage of fish is inspected for species authenticity?
• Which option best describes the 'General subject matter' Codex committee type?
• What is an element of HACCP validation?
• Which of the following are potential sources of E. coli O157 contamination on cattle farms?
• How do people get Cyclospora cayetanensis?
• Which of the following are integrated pest management requirements by the FDA for laying hen flocks?
• The statement '(T/F) If the appropriate hazards are not identified then the HACCP plan may be ineffective.'
• In HACCP, which term describes activities other than monitoring that determine the validity of the HACCP plan and that the system is operating according to the plan?
• Which of the following is NOT a common source of Campylobacter in people?
• Which is an example of laboratory evidence in an outbreak investigation?
• Grass-fed cattle will not shed E. coli.
• Codex promotes coordination of all food standards work undertaken by international governments and NGOs.
• Under the FDA Egg Rule, what is the egg testing sampling plan described?
• Which FSMA component addresses control of hazards in raw materials and other ingredients before receipt?
• Approximately what percent of water troughs on cattle farms are contaminated with E. coli O157?
• Mitigation strategies in a Food Defense Plan typically include which elements?
• The statement 'Raw manure can be applied directly to the harvestable portion of the crop if it is not harvested until 3 days later' is:
• The value of salt as a meat curing agent is demonstrated primarily by which property?
• Chalkbrood causative agent?
• What are three safety considerations for cell cultured meats?
• The RB51 vaccine increases false-positives in cattle serology for Brucellosis.
• Trypanosomiasis can be acquired via ingestion of contaminated food or drink.
• Which Vibrio species is most associated with severe infection in people with liver disease?
• Regulations on raw milk vary by state.
• Probiotics in cattle for E. coli O157 have been shown to be effective. Which statement best characterizes this claim?
• Which technique provides a higher resolution view of the bacterial genome?
• Under FSMA, FDA will not extend Produce Safety Regulation requirements to certain commodities. True or False?
• Under NSIS, which statement about consumer safety inspectors' training and duties is accurate?
• Which of the following is NOT a common clinical sign of human infection with Salmonella enteritidis?
• A vaccine exists for RB51 Brucellosis.
• Which of the following is listed as a pro of GMOs?
• Which organism causes Diarrhetic Shellfish Poisoning and what toxin does it produce?
• What is the term for removing contaminated products from the market during a foodborne outbreak?
• Nosema disease is best described as which of the following?
• Ultra High Temperature (UHT) processing of milk is used to achieve which outcome?
• To prevent sporulation of Cyclospora cayetanensis in dairy products, which condition is required?
• What is the purpose of HACCP?
• A positive phosphatase test on ice cream could indicate which of the following?
• Which diatom genus produces domoic acid?
• Pseudo-nitzschia produces which toxin?
• Cyclospora cayetanensis is transmitted by which of the following routes?
• Pasteurization temperature/times in milk regulation are keyed into destroying which organism?
• In the alkaline phosphatase test, what color indicates pasteurization was adequate?
• The type of Clostridium botulinum associated with growth and toxin formation at lower temperatures is which type?
• Which labeling item must be present on pet food packaging?
• Who is the front line of public health in the US public health infrastructure?
• The chief bacteriostatic agent in woodsmoke is which compound?
• (T/F) VFD drugs are prescription drugs.
• Which of the following is NOT one of the seven major FSMA provisions?
• Which hazards are addressed by HACCP?
• Do European Foulbrood larvae rope out?
• Which agency only oversees plant GMOs and requires reporting of plant-incorporated protectants (PIP) and disclosure of MCAN?
• What syndrome can Varroa mites cause in a honeybee colony?
• What unit is used to express the dose of radiation in food irradiation?
• Traceback evidence in an outbreak investigation can include which of the following?
• Which areas are usually controlled in pre-requisite programs such as GMPs?
• Prerequisite programs are designed to provide basic environmental or operating conditions necessary for production of safe, wholesome food.
• Tuna and Mackerel can cause which foodborne toxicity?
• Which of the following is a pathogen that may be isolated from raw milk?
• PRP stands for what in HACCP context?
• Which Salmonella serotype is commonly found in chicken and chicken eggs?
• The first reported human case of RB51 brucellosis in the United States occurred in 2017.
• Human Salmonella infections have been linked to dry dog and cat food.
• How long does a honeybee queen live?
• With the final rule for Modernization of Swine Slaughter Inspection, what is the mandatory component that all slaughter plants must adhere to now?
• Which statement about Hepatitis A is correct?
• Histamine production in scrombrotoxin poisoning occurs via which process?
• Is extra-label use of veterinary feed directive (VFD) drugs allowed under certain circumstances?
• The Food Safety Modernization Act (FSMA) is an amendment to which act?
• Staphylococcus aureus illness typically presents with which onset after ingestion of the heat-stable toxin?
• Which labeling item indicates nutritional adequacy for pet foods?
• Which disinfectant is most effective for decontaminating surfaces affected by human norovirus?
• Which of the following is NOT a type of microorganism that can contaminate dairy products?
• Which surface disinfectant is more effective against human norovirus on surfaces?
• Where does contamination most often occur in outbreaks linked to fresh produce?
• Longer and flatter epidemic curves lasting months are typically due to which type of product/outbreaks?
• Which of the following is a common contamination vector for milk?
• Which of the following lists the three elements to establishing corrective actions in HACCP?
• Ciguatera and Scrombroid toxins are destroyed by proper cooking.
• Which of the following is a potential source of physical hazards in food?
• ____________ is that element of verification focused on collecting and evaluating scientific and technical information to determine if the HACCP plan, when properly implemented, will effectively control the hazards.
• FDA is responsible for foods not covered by USDA-FSIS. Which category is included in FDA's purview?
• A recall involving a health hazard with a remote probability of adverse health consequences from eating the food (e.g., foreign materials) is a
• Humane handling applies to livestock and poultry.
• Which disease is specifically treated with a VFD-approved drug in honeybees?
• Which organism is not among the top four causes of death from foodborne illness in the United States?
• What does NSIS require establishment personnel to do if they suspect an animal or carcass has a reportable or foreign animal disease?
• The feeding of microorganisms on dead organic matter and the organisms that subsequently eat the herbivores is called which of the following?
• What is a characteristic symptom of American Foulbrood?
• Which statement best describes Food Defense objectives?
• Animals in a stable physiologic state are generally resistant to Salmonellosis due to what (molecular level)?
• Which statement describes a strength of PulseNet/PFGE-based subtyping?
• Which two tests, aside from the California Mastitis Test, are used to test viscosity of milk?
• If a cow is down and nonambulatory, is it permissible to drag it consciously to an area for euthanasia?
• A ___________ is used to distinguish between safe and unsafe operating conditions at a CCP.
• FSIS post-mortem inspection is an organoleptic (sensory) inspection.
• Which factor is not typically considered when assessing risks before planting a fresh produce site?
• In the described Seriola rivoliana outbreak, what deficiency is implicated as the diagnosis?
• Which statement accurately describes the first step in the FSMA Preventative Controls approach?
• House mice are highly susceptible to Salmonella enteritidis. Which statement is accurate?
• Is secondary spread with human norovirus common within 1 to 2 weeks after initial infection?
• What are the three types of committees for the Codex Alimentarius?
• Which birds are monitored for H5/H7 as part of NPIP?
• Which type of birds are the natural carriers of bird flu viruses?
• Ciguatera toxin is derived from which organism?
• Under the VFD Final Rule, the overall purpose is to limit antimicrobial use to what?
• Which agency is responsible for ensuring the meat, poultry, and some egg products are safe, wholesome, and correctly labeled and packaged?
• The three genera most frequently documented as causative agents of human bacterial origin foodborne illness in the US are?
• Which statement best reflects the requirement regarding unconsciousness after stunning?
• Which statement best describes a Class II recall?
• Which of the following is a normal time frame for environmental testing for Salmonella enteritidis in laying hens?
• Which statement about corrective actions at CCPs is correct?
• Target organism for HACCP with poultry as part of pathogen reduction (HACCP Systems Final Rule - July 1996) is the target organism:
• Which Salmonella enteritidis vaccine, given to laying hens, is specifically protective and helps reduce fecal shedding by protecting ovaries and oviduct?
• Which of the following is NOT a key aspect of a Food Defense Plan?
• Who must verify that foreign suppliers have adequate preventative controls in place?
• Which practice helps exclude and discourage pests around fresh produce production?
• African Dwarf Frogs are popular amphibian pets in the United States and can carry Salmonella. Which option is true?
• Which is the second step in an outbreak investigation?
• Verification/Validation activities involve which of the following?
• FSIS veterinarians are in meat and poultry plants in the US every day to ensure that only healthy, wholesome products enter commerce.
• In the rodent index system, what does an index of 1 indicate?
• In 2005 in Santa Catarina, what were the reported outcomes of the Cyclospora outbreak linked to sugar cane juice?
• Which of the following pathogens is commonly linked to seafood such as raw oysters?
• Untreated surface water may be used to make ice for postharvest activities.
• Which statement about food irradiation is correct?
• Which processing method yields a shelf-stable milk without refrigeration?
• When potable water is discharged into any reservoir, air gaps are essential to prevent what?
• What food is linked to 46% of foodborne illness outbreaks?
• Which of the following is one of the six diseases/pests considered by the OIE for honeybees?
• Which physical parameter is observed on the phosphatase inactivation curve?
• Which organism is associated with bacterial foodborne illness?
• Which of the following is an example of an insider threat indicator?
• (T/F) Ionizing radiation, surface pasteurization, electronic pasteurization, e-beam sterilization/pasteurization, and cold pasteurization are all synonyms for food irradiation.
• What is the final step in the seven-step outbreak investigation?
• Which factor is NOT associated with foods at higher risk for terrorism?
• Which group is least susceptible to infection with Salmonella enteritidis?
• Which of the following is NOT a recognized option for flocks testing positive for Salmonella enteritidis?
• Which feed mills are exempt from registering as a food facility under FSMA?
• What properties does the California Mastitis Test assess in milk?
• Which statement accurately describes the fourth step in the FSMA Preventative Controls approach?
• VHSV stands for which of the following?
• What is the causative agent of American Foulbrood?
• If a flock testing positive for Salmonella enteritidis engages in egg testing and one of the four consecutive samples tests positive again, what action is required?
• A VFD expiration can be extended beyond 6 months if the veterinarian deems appropriate.
• Grade A milk that consistently shows bacteria counts in excess of the legally acceptable maximum should be:
• What is the most common etiology of pasteurized milk outbreaks, accounting for about 44%?
• Which statement best describes the susceptibility of Listeria monocytogenes to irradiation with respect to growth phase?
• How does a VFD differ from a traditional prescription in terms of oversight?
• Which statement best describes the energy source implicated in the completion of rigor mortis?
• Under FSMA, a food that is imported and then exported without leaving the port of arrival until export is exempt from the Prior Notice rule. True or false?
• Within Salmonellosis, when do symptoms typically start after exposure?
• Foodborne infections occur when a pathogen invades the body after consumption of contaminated food. Which term describes this category?
• Toxoplasma is a parasite transmissible to humans by swine.
• Seafood consumption has been documented to be a source for which disease in humans?
• Which statement best describes how to minimize growth of Salmonella enteritidis in eggs after laying?
• Which of the following is a human foodborne pathogen of poultry?
• Paralytic Shellfish Poisoning is caused by which organism, and what toxin does it produce?
• The standard HTST for pasteurization (161 F for 15 seconds) is required to be increased for higher content products like heavy cream or eggnog.
• What groups of people are more susceptible to infection with Salmonella enteritidis?
• What is the best description of the difference between a CCP and a prerequisite in HACCP hazard control?
• Which organism has a 100% prevalence in poultry according to the material?
• Raw milk safety relies on competitive exclusion by beneficial bacteria.
• Which guidelines provide foundation for HACCP?
• In the normal, healthy animal, which body site is the last to accumulate fat?
• What organism causes ergotism?
• What are common clinical signs of people with Salmonella infection?
• Which two viruses can be found in shellfish?
• Which of the following foods was not associated with a major outbreak in the material?
• In meat, which statement correctly describes pre-harvest and post-harvest stages?
• The New Poultry Inspection System (NPIS) replaced the Streamlined Inspection System (SIS), New Line Speed Inspection System (NELS), and New Turkey Inspection System (NTIS).
• Who must perform all foreign supplier verification program tasks?
• What term describes the action when a product with a minor violation is removed from the market or corrected, such as tampering without evidence of manufacturing or distribution problems?
• What is the principal reservoir for nontyphoidal Salmonella enterica serotypes?
• Which statement about the Foreign Agricultural Service is true?
• Which Salmonella enteritidis vaccine, given to chicks, provides longer and stronger protection?
• Swine vaccination reduces incidence but is not 100% effective.
• FSIS Ante-mortem inspections are performed on every animal to be slaughtered. Which of the following is a reason for this inspection?
• The Veterinary Feed Directive affects antimicrobials administered in which forms?
• European Foulbrood larvae susceptible window?
• What is the causative agent of Viral hemorrhagic septicemia?
• Which component of a Food Defense Plan focuses on identifying how a contamination could occur?
• Which practice is a form of post-harvest processing that uses heat to destroy pathogens?
• Which statement best describes FSIS's role in the USDA?
• Direct contact with animal reservoirs includes exposure to which animals?
• The major eight food allergens include Milk, Eggs, Peanuts, Tree Nuts, Fish, Crustaceans, Wheat, and Soy. Which item is NOT among them?
• Which statement about lettuce and E. coli O157 is true?
• A __________ is a point, step, or procedure at which control can be applied and a food safety hazard can be prevented, eliminated, or reduced to acceptable levels.
• What is the HEV case fatality rate in the general population and in pregnant women?
• Causative agent of European Foulbrood?
• Which of the following is NOT an objective of the NPIP?
• Sampling minimum for turkeys, ducks, guineas, and squab?
• In the rapid test and slaughter approach for AI H5 outbreaks, the intended response time is approximately how long?
• Which microorganism spores are most resistant to ionizing radiation?
• The dairy product in which you would be most likely to enumerate Staphylococcus aureus is which?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the ante-mortem removal criteria?
• There are vaccines available for E coli O157 in cattle.
• When does egg production begin in chickens?
• Which statement best describes the primary way fallout radioisotopes pose a public health risk for humans?
• The NPIS is primarily for what birds?
• What is the prevalence of Campylobacter coli in swine?
• Substitution for a generic VFD is allowed if it is not specifically stated on the VFD that it is NOT allowed.
• What does GM stand for in the context of water quality testing for produce safety?
• Under NSIS, post-mortem inspection on the line is performed by which personnel?
• Which of the following is a parasite of concern in fresh produce?
• Which of the following is NOT a factor in the extent to which fat is incorporated into a stable emulsion?
• Why is bioterrorism in food an attractive strategy?
• Which of the following is one of the three main impact points for produce safety risks related to production water?
• Which statement about the Turtle size law is true?
• Which fish are specifically mentioned as linked to scrombroid toxicity?
• Which component addresses actions taken after a deviation to prevent recurrence?
• Which of the following is NOT part of the Big 8 allergens?
• Which statement about offline verification inspectors under NSIS is correct?
• Nitrite in bacon is a public health concern because: which statement is true?
• Mahimahi and sardines can cause scrombroid toxicity.
• Which statement about raw milk outbreaks is true?
• Which of the following is a possible symptom of listeriosis?
• (T/F) FSMA requires food from abroad to be as safe as domestic.
• Which is a preliminary task in developing a HACCP plan?
• What does NPIS stand for?
• What is the FSIS maximum allowed percent of Campylobacter contamination in chicken and turkey samples?
• FSMA expanded records access to improve recalls and traceability.
• Under the Veterinary Feed Directive Final Rule, what were antimicrobial drug companies asked to do regarding production uses?
• Approximately what percent of cattle feed is contaminated with E. coli O157?
• Which pairing correctly matches organism to the poisoning associated?
• Which post-harvest practice slows microbial growth by lowering temperatures?
• Under FSMA, who is responsible for ensuring foreign suppliers have adequate preventative controls in place?
• Which statement accurately describes the third step in the FSMA Preventative Controls approach?
• Vibrio vulnificus infection risk is particularly high in individuals with underlying liver disease.
• Which organism is commonly associated with bacterial foodborne illness such as listeriosis?
• Freezing point determination of milk is useful for:
• Who can perform reinspection of poultry carcasses and pass or condemn them in the FSIS post-mortem inspection?
• Which term is defined as the transfer of food energy from plants to herbivores and then to carnivores?
• Which organism is associated with bacterial foodborne intoxication?
• Which item is a long shelf life product?
• Which of the following are examples of prerequisite programs for a HACCP plan?
• Which Vibrio species is an obligate halophile (requires NaCl for growth)?
• Which carcass type is exposed to the most microbial contamination during fabrication?
• How many Big 8 allergens are there?
• How is Hepatitis E virus spread?
• The oversight at harvest for livestock and poultry cells for cell cultured meats is shared by which arrangement?
• The ionizing radiation used to preserve food is which form?
• In triaging PulseNet clusters, which item is considered?
• NSIS requires establishments to maintain records on the total number of animals and carcasses sorted and removed per day, and the reason for their removal.
• Bioterrorism becomes a choice of a terrorist organization when?
• Under NSIS, who is required to sort carcasses and parts that are presented to an FSIS on-line inspector for post mortem inspection?
• Nonambulatory animals must be separated from ambulatory animals to be slaughter, and have shelter provided.
• The only foodborne disease required by international health regulations to be reported to the WHO is caused by which organism?
• Grayanotoxin poisoning is associated with honey produced from rhododendrons. Which option lists this exposure correctly?
• Which mite is foreign to the United States?
• High fat content does not impact pasteurization temperatures.
• What are the three legs of evidence needed to solve an outbreak?
• Which of the following is a source of Salmonella infection?
• True or False: Ready-to-eat foods may pose greater risk of intentional contamination since preparation may dilute, remove, or destroy an agent.
• Why are molluscan shellfish particularly prone to contamination?
• What is the required action after four consecutive negative egg tests following a positive status?
• True or False: Some states prohibit sale of raw milk, while others authorize the legal sale of raw milk in some specified manner for direct human consumption.
• What is the typical incubation period for Salmonella in humans?
• What is a category I feed use drug?
• Toxocara is a parasite transmissible to humans by swine.
• A recall in which use of or exposure to a violative product is not likely to cause adverse health consequences is called a
• Why was the NPIP established?
• The United States imports nearly what percentage of its seafood consumption?
• Which component addresses taking corrective actions when deviations occur?
• What is the maximum number of positive Salmonella results allowed under the Salmonella Verification Testing Program?
• How often must the Food Safety Plan be reviewed under FSMA?
• Which of the following is NOT a preventive control component of the Food Safety Plan?
• What is a category II feed-use drug?
• Which antibiotic is the only one listed as a medicated feed product for honeybees?
• Which term is used when the association between two variables is due to the influence of a third variable?
• How long do Salmonellosis symptoms typically last in people?
• Which of the following is a human foodborne pathogen of seafood?
• Which antibiotic is approved as a medicated feed product for honeybees?
• (T/F) VFD drugs require professional oversight by a licensed veterinarian.
• Which of the following groups is NOT among the highest risk for Salmonellosis?
• Which population is most at risk for foodborne illness?
• What term describes the result of breakdown of fatty and muscular tissues and loss of the water-holding capacity of the muscle tissues?
• Which statement is correct regarding infection and intoxication in foodborne illness?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the four foodborne pathogens commonly carried by cattle?
• Where do FSIS carcass inspectors work under NPIS?
• Which of the following is true about the 5 non-foodborne transmission routes list?
• Every tanker of milk is tested for beta lactam/cephalosporin antibiotics using FDA/NCIMS approved tests.
• Pasteurization is the heating of milk or milk products to a certain temperature for a specific period of time. The purpose is to destroy disease-causing and spoilage organisms.
• Which statement is true about Tilmicosin's VFD uses?
• Vaccinating birds in AI outbreak can eradicate the disease and provide sterilizing immunity.
• Which FSMA provision concerns the accreditation of third‑party certification bodies?
• NARMS sampling for resistant bacteria includes which of the following?
• Who does the Salmonella Verification Testing Program apply to?
• Which of the following lists three indicators of an insider threat to watch for in an employee?
• What is true about ready-to-eat foods and terrorism risk, according to the material?
• What type of foodborne hazards broadly include pesticides, additives, and adulterants?
• NPIP stands for what?
• Ciguatera fish poisoning is caused by which organism?
• Which statement about fresh produce safety challenges is true?
• Which two religious exemptions exist for stunning livestock before slaughter?
• Which statement about preventing Salmonella transmission in a reptile/amphibian facility is supported by biosecurity practices?
• Poultry and swine can be effectively vaccinated against Salmonella.
• Which of the following is a risk to assess before planting a fresh produce site?
• Which statement about Hepatitis E and Influenza in swine is accurate?
• (T/F) Congress gave FDA more authority and strengthened accountability for prevention under FSMA.
• What does NARMS stand for?
• How does the presence of oxygen affect food irradiation?
• Which two parasitic mites are present in the United States for honeybees?
• When are chickens most susceptible to infection with Salmonella enteritidis?
• ________ is the planned sequence of observation to assess CCP control and to produce a record for verification.
• Approximately what percentage of US Soy crops are GMO?
• Which commodities are explicitly excluded from the FSMA Produce Safety Rule?
• What life stage does American Foulbrood affect?
• Which of the following is a reason we need laws regarding foodborne illness?
• Which organism is associated with bacterial foodborne intoxication?
• Under NSIS, there was a shift from which group on the line inspecting to which?
• In HACCP, a CCP is a step at which control measures are applied to prevent, eliminate, or reduce a food safety hazard to an acceptable level.
• Vibrio parahaemolyticus is commonly associated with which source?
• One element of the NPIS is that establishments sort and remove unacceptable carcasses and parts.
• The most important single protective measure for food handlers to follow is:
• What is the recommended policy for therapy dog programs regarding dogs fed raw meat?
• The NSIS implemented maximum line speeds.
• Which measure helps prevent farm-to-farm spread of avian influenza?
• Under NPIS, there is zero tolerance for off-line carcasses to have which two things?
• Compared with raw milk, pasteurized milk has which nutritional difference?
• When a fixed sterilization temperature is used, which statement about initial contamination is generally correct?
• Which of the following is non-Grade A (manufacturing grade) dairy product?
• Tylosin and Lincomycin are available over-the-counter drugs to treat honeybees.
• Where are eggs usually infected with Salmonella enteritidis in the laying hen?
• Honeybees are regulated as food animals by which agency and under which act?
• In HACCP, if a hazard is reasonably likely to occur, what should you do?
• What is the sampling minimum for chickens to prevent contamination?
• The Carcass Inspector performs offline inspection activities under NPIS. True or False?
• Which of the following is a recommended practice to reduce insider adulteration risk?
• Which statement best describes norovirus infectious dose and shedding in asymptomatic infections?
• What are the actions to take in the event of a foodborne outbreak?
• What do healthy bee larvae look like?
• Which statement best reflects norovirus shedding in asymptomatic infections?
• Codex members cover ______% of the world's population.
• In Avilamycin swine example, the VFD expiration date is 90 days. What is the duration of use?
• What is an example of a VFD drug used to treat American Foulbrood in honeybees?
• During FSIS ante-mortem inspection, how are animals observed and how are abnormal animals handled?
• In an outbreak investigation, it is not just asking ill people what they ate, but also understanding how food is prepared at the menu or ingredient level.
• Which of the following is listed as a pro of GMOs?
• A common source of Salmonella Enteritidis is
• Recently, a Campylobacter outbreak was associated with chicken liver. Why?
• Which USDA agency is responsible for ensuring that the nation's commercial supply of meat, poultry, and egg products is safe, wholesome, and correctly labeled and packaged?
• Gambierdiscus toxicus belongs to which group?
• Which HACCP principle involves listing hazards significant enough to cause injury or illness?
• Which bias is a bias from a measurement error?
• Which statement accurately describes the second step in the FSMA Preventative Controls approach?
• What is the new sampling requirement for large swine slaughter establishments (3 parts)?
• Which of the following is NOT a common source of Salmonella in people?
• Which of the following is a human-specific agent that can contaminate food via human waste contaminating the food supply?
• Which instrument has the capability of confirming the presence of a drug residue in the tissue of food animals with a 99% accuracy?
• Which statement about raw bovine colostrum is true?
• (T/F) Vibrio vulnificus may produce wound infections among healthy persons handling raw shellfish.
• Public concern about GMO salmon production is primarily related to what issue?
• What is the intermediate or paratenic host for anisakidae?
• Physical testing of each legal pasteurizer is required how often?
• Which toxin is produced by Karenia brevis that causes neurotoxic shellfish poisoning?
• During depuration, where are shellfish moved?
• What are the three outcomes for a FSIS post-mortem inspection?
• APHIS require hot water dipping of some tropical fruit to kill fruit fly larvae. What is an unintended consequence/possibility from this?
• Intentional adulteration of a food product requires an aggressor who has access to the product and to a sufficient contaminant, and what other three conditions?
• What are the two categories of disabled livestock according to the 9 CFR?
• Post-mortem inspections are performed on ante-mortem condemned livestock or birds.
• As part of NPIS, written procedures for preventing septicemia/toxemia carcasses from entering the ______ and including sorting procedures. Procedures are incorporated into a ______ system.
• Which statement best describes Salmonella enteritidis vaccination policy under the FDA Egg Rule?
• Which of the following is NOT an approved method of stunning livestock?
• A cull beef cow presented for ante-mortem inspection with central nervous system disease should be dispositioned as which option?
• Which areas are considered sensitive and should never be targeted by driving instruments according to 9 CFR guidelines?
• Which HACCP principle facilitates tracking of the operation, determines when there is a loss of control and a deviation occurs at a CCP, and provides written documentation for verification?
• Which of the following is a common source of Listeria monocytogenes?
• Which agencies regulate antimicrobial use in animal feed in the United States?
• Which of the following is NOT identified as a contamination route for milk after leaving the cow?
• Which of the following best describes Codex Alimentarius' function related to international trade?
• Hepatitis A and E have chronic infections in people.
• Compared with bacteria, viruses typically have which relative infectious dose?
• Which statement regarding histamine poisoning from fish is true?
• Which of the following is NOT a recommended biosecurity practice in a reptile/amphibian store to control infection and transmission?
• What is the best way to work with bees if you must examine the hive?
• Which of the following best describes a FSMA enhancement?
• Refrigeration completely prevents growth and survival of Listeria in raw milk.
• Which is an ante-mortem condition that would remove a pig from ante-mortem inspection for disposal?
• Under the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, food irradiation is considered a food processing method or additive?
• Which country currently dominates aquaculture?
• Do many large poultry slaughter establishments stun prior to sticking?
• What are the two most common serotypes of Salmonella?
• An outbreak of E. coli O104:H4 in Germany was linked to what product?
• A common source of Salmonella Typhimurium is
• Campylobacter can come from raw milk.
• Eggs held on farm for more than 36 hours after laying must be kept at what temperature to minimize Salmonella enteritidis growth?
• Irradiation can indirectly form radiolytic products/free radicals from water.
• Which areas are considered sensitive where driving instruments should never be used?
• What is the prevalence of Campylobacter jejuni in poultry?
• Which post-harvest processing method is used to control Vibrio and spoilage bacteria in shellfish but may alter organoleptic characteristics?
• Which agencies would have oversight at harvest for livestock and poultry cells for cell cultured meat?
• Rancidity in fats is caused by which of the following?
• Sea lions showing seizures and disorientation are associated with poisoning by which toxin?
• Which diagnostic method is used to detect Cyclospora cayetanensis in stool samples?
• Shellfish are often used as indicators for which bacteria?
• Food safety hazards are typically categorized into which three broad types?
• Which option lists the five aggressor types that may cause intentional adulteration?
• If confirmed positive, the milk must be discarded and the producer pays for the load of milk.
• What is the standard HTST pasteurization condition used as a baseline in PMO?
• Which animals are observed in motion from both sides during ante-mortem inspection?
• If potato salad is identified as the source of a foodborne illness, which organism is most likely responsible?
• Molting increases susceptibility to Salmonella enteritidis infection by how much?
• What brings about completion of rigor mortis?
• All worker bees are what gender?
• Fluoroquinolones are approved for use in poultry.
• Which agency oversees both plant and animal GMOs and requires notification, issue permits, and determinations of nonregulated statuses?
• The ______ inspector verifies compliance with the HACCP system.